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OpenStudy (anonymous):
It is not possible to prove one pair of triangles congruent and then use their congruent corresponding parts to prove another pair congruent. I believe that it is false, Please let me know. thanks
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
Explain why you believe it is false.
OpenStudy (anonymous):
if you are proving another pair congruent why would you refer to the other two triangles?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
false
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