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Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

It is not possible to prove one pair of triangles congruent and then use their congruent corresponding parts to prove another pair congruent. I believe that it is false, Please let me know. thanks

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Explain why you believe it is false.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if you are proving another pair congruent why would you refer to the other two triangles?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

false

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