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Is it true that if F and G are arbitrary differentiable functions, and if F(x)+G(x)=0, then F'(x)+G'(x)=0?
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just want to confirm
Try it out with different functions and see what you get.
f+g=0 taking derivative of both sides gives (f+g)'=(0)' f'+g'=0
yep I did that too, thanks.
great!
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:D
just wanted to make sure haha. anyway, you guys want to help me with a PDE please?
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