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Mathematics 20 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Is it true that if F and G are arbitrary differentiable functions, and if F(x)+G(x)=0, then F'(x)+G'(x)=0?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

just want to confirm

hero (hero):

Try it out with different functions and see what you get.

myininaya (myininaya):

f+g=0 taking derivative of both sides gives (f+g)'=(0)' f'+g'=0

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yep I did that too, thanks.

myininaya (myininaya):

great!

hero (hero):

:D

OpenStudy (anonymous):

just wanted to make sure haha. anyway, you guys want to help me with a PDE please?

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