Question

given a set of (n+1) integers, none of which exceeds 2n, show that at least one of the numbers in the set must divide another number of the set

Answer 1

..Do you mean one of the numbers is divisible?

Answer 2

yep! I think I figured it out... I'll have to use induction to do this one :)

Answer 3

Sorry I haven't had to do a proof by induction in years.

Answer 4

yeah, i just figures it's not that... it's supposed to the Pigeonhole Principle (I THINK)