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Mathematics 21 Online
jhonyy9 (jhonyy9):

- if p=2n+1 ,where p>2,p is prim, than p-1=2n and n=(p-1)/2 - so for n=k than k=(p-1)/2 so 2k=p-1 so 2k=(2n+1)-1 so 2k=2n /divide both sides by 2 so k=n - from this result that for every natural numbers n>=1 exist one p prim such that n=(p-1)/2 true or false ?

OpenStudy (mr.math):

False. Take \(n=4\) for example, that would give \(p=9\) which is not a prime.

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