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Mathematics 19 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

I need help evaluating this intergral.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\int\limits_{1}^{1}\tan^-1(x)dx\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I cant get it right but its tan^-1

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Anyone have a clue?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I'm assuming you are referring to inverse tangent also call arctan..

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Yes I am

OpenStudy (anonymous):

here's a link...try integration by parts.... http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=I7b_niz7lQQ

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Wow is that the same problem? Yeah i understand the by parts..guess I kinda see what I did wrong

OpenStudy (turingtest):

is this integral really from 1 to 1 or is that a typo?

OpenStudy (turingtest):

well, if it is from 1 to 1, you should invoke the fact that\[\int_{a}^{a}f(x)dx=0\]because the area under the curve has a width of zero, which means it has an area of zero

OpenStudy (turingtest):

if not then integration by parts will work\[u=\tan^{-1}x\]\[dv=1\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Turing Test is absolutely correct...if the limits of integration are the same value the answer is zero...I didn't see it...kudos to Turing Test!

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