Mathematics OpenStudy (anonymous):

please help....... TRUE or False and state the reason 1) if lim x-->0 f(X)=infinity and lim x-->0 g(X)=infinity, then lim x-->0 [f(X)-g(x)]=0 2)if f(1)>0 and f(#)<0,then there exists a number c between a and 3 such that f(c)=0 3) if f(x)>1 for all x and lim x-->0 f(x) exists, the lim x-->0 f(x)>1 OpenStudy (anonymous):

1) false. eg. f(x) = - g(x), the statement is wrong 2) please tell me the meaning of "#", but if a<b and f(a)<0 f(b)>0, there is a number c between a and b that f(c) = 0 3) true. f(x) > 1 applies for all x, even lim x --> 0 OpenStudy (anonymous):

opps sorry 2)if f(1)>0 and f(3)<0,then there exists a number c between a and 3 such that f(c)=0 OpenStudy (anonymous):

thanks a lot OpenStudy (anonymous):

plz give me a medal thx :) OpenStudy (vishal_kothari):

yeah..

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