Just want to make sure I'm doing this right. \[\lim_{(x,y)->(0,0)} \frac{x^{3}+xy^{2}}{x^{2}+y^{2}}\] If I set y to 0, this boils down to x, and the limit of x as x goes to 0 is 0. If I set x to 0, then this boils down to \[\frac{0}{y^{2}}\] or 0. And since I get the same limit either way, my limit is 0.
Yeah , you're right:)
yes
Awesome, and one more question. If for a given expression, I am trying to prove the limit does not exist, then I would use this same method, and if I get different limits then I have shown that the limit does not exist.
yeah:D
Great. Thank you very much :)
Welcome:D
I love this type of question all I have to say yes or no and get medals! :D
yes, no ok i have a question if x and y are not both zero, why isn't this just \[x\]?
and so while the limit is in fact zero, i don't think one computes a limit of this type by setting one variable = 0 and then taking the limit as the other goes to zero. that is only going to zero from one direction
right because the next problem is giving me an issue... I basically just got the same result as in my first example but I know the limit is not supposed to exist here... \[\lim_{(x,y)->(2,0)} \frac{xy-2y}{x^{2}+y^2}\]
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