Express as a single integral (can someone explain this to me?)
*tick tock tick tock* lol
Look at this page and see if it's helpful at all... http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=single+integral
lol Rogue:P
I'm posting it one second
The middle one is just 0 since the limits of integration are the same.
Well, that's weird...
do they just adopt the largest interval possible? Do you know where i can find a rule set for these problems?
Properties of a definite integral http://www.sosmath.com/calculus/integ/integ02/integ02.html
is there something weird about this question but yeah man thanks you are saving my retrice I have a general intermediary metabolism test in a couple days that I haven't started studying for so I need to learn this stuff fast
Ugh, bio, so much memorization :( I have an idea on how to do this one, give me a few.
Okay, I got it!
I dont care about the answer more about the journey to the answer.
man that was wrong!!
\[\int\limits_{0}^{2} f(x) dx - \int\limits_{4}^{4} (f(x) + g(x))dx - \int\limits_{2}^{4} f(x) dx\]\[\int\limits\limits_{0}^{2} f(x) dx - \int\limits\limits_{2}^{4} f(x) dx\]\[\int\limits\limits\limits_{2}^{4} f(x-2) dx - \int\limits\limits\limits_{2}^{4} f(x) dx = \int\limits_{2}^{4} (f(x-2) - f(x))dx\]
I don;t follow rogue
:( Okay, where do you get lost?
from the start lol
Okay, the start is your problem, lol.
oh I see it becomes 0
because it is a =4 b =4
yeah, same limits of integration = area of a line = 0
I'm lost when it comes to subtracting integrals though
does it just become the largest interval possible?
You can combine integrals if they have the same limits. Ex.\[\int\limits_{a}^{b} g(x)dx + \int\limits_{a}^{b} h(x)dx = \int\limits_{a}^{b} \left[ g(x) + h(x) \right]dx\]
right I understand that rule :)
Okay, as per your 'largest interval possible,' yes, if its something like this\[\int\limits_{a}^{b} h(x)dx + \int\limits_{b}^{c} h(x)dx = \int\limits_{a}^{c} h(x)dx\]
But we don't have that, and we have different limits of integration. So in order to make combine it and make it 1 integral, we need same limits of integration.
To get the limits from 0 to 2 of \[\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{2} f(x) dx\]to 2 to 4, we translate the function 2 to the right.
oh I see, so I need to learn the basic function transformation rules from a long time ago :)
If you have a graphing calculator, play around w/ y = x and y = x - 2. The area under y = x from 0 to 2 is the same as the area under y = x - 2 from 2 to 4.
Its the same area, just with different limits of integration, which we can be combined w/ the other integral because then they have the same limits.
oh I see, we are just shifting the function, so with negative integrals we need to transform the function so that the intervals are the same so we can combine them?
Is it the same with positive integrals
No, disregard the negative/positive. In order to combine 2 integrals, they need to have the same limits of integration, that's the main point.\[\int\limits_{a}^{b} f(x)dx + \int\limits_{a}^{b} g(x) dx = \int\limits_{a}^{b}\left[ f(x) + g(x) \right] dx\]\[\int\limits\limits_{a}^{b} f(x)dx - \int\limits\limits_{a}^{b} g(x) dx = \int\limits\limits_{a}^{b}\left[ f(x) - g(x) \right] dx\]
ok I think I get it now, just to clarify though you can add integrals that are within the limits of another the other integral so in the case you pointed out. c > b and a < b
or am I just lost
|dw:1332126029928:dw|
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!