If the equation \(A\vec x = \vec b\) has atleast one solution for each \(\vec b\) in \(R^n\), then the solution is un ique for each \(\vec b\). True or False?
say \(A=\begin{pmatrix}1&0&3\\0&1&4\end{pmatrix} \) wouldnt this suggest that b has at least one solution, and that it is not unique?
i forgot to read: "assume A is an nxn matrix ..." hmm but still it doesnt suggest that its linearly independant does it
I think you also have to consider that it has at least one solution for every \(\vec b \in \mathbb{R}^n\). And that A is an \(n\times n\) matrix...
2 solutions is "at least" one solution ...
In that case, I'm pretty sure it's true. Especially since \(\mathbb{R}^n\) is a finite field extension over \(\mathbb{R}\).
that sounds abstract albegra-y
On the other hand, what if A doesn't have an inverse. Would that change things?
So, if an Anxn hits every b in R^n; then it would span R^n .... right?
if it spans then its linearly independant; has in inverse .. yada yada yada
Right. So this statement would be true then.
yeah, I just dint read all the pertinent information to begin with on the exam :) it makes more sense now
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!