Does this converge or diverge, if converge what is the value?
\[\int\limits_{0}^{\infty} 1/(x+2)(x+4)dx\]
from 0 to t, limt t->inf ... i guess it diverges
\[\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_{0}^{n}\frac{1}{2(x+2)}dx-\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_{0}^{n}\frac{1}{2(x+4)}dx\]
Yea eyust I know that much..just not sure how
actualy i beleive a comparison would be easier...
across how did u get that? I did not get that..
but either way is 100 percent valid
yea this is integration comparison test ... if the above integration diverges and the your series also diverges
okay so in my class we showed that \[\int\limits_{1}^{\infty} 1/x^p \] diverges if p is >1
we can compare your integral to the above intagral and show that it is for sure greater
if something is greater than i divergent integral, it also diverges
yeah i saw that one time eyust..just not sure for this
across will prolly explain it better
heehe thats a long answer =P
okay so here we have the integral \[\int\limits_{1}^{\infty} 1/(x^2+6x+8)\] and we could say that that integral is greater than \[\int\limits_{1}^{\infty} 1/x^2 \] and since \[\int\limits_{1}^{\infty} 1/x^2 \] diverges, your inegral must also diverge
BTW all intergrals are w/ respect to x
its actually 0 to infinity. does that change it?
nope
but if it is less than 0 it would!
damn this is confusing. Oh well
yea i had a lot of troube with these once you get the hang of them tho they are super easy
basically an integral that diverges means that its area goes off to infinity or - infinity
an integral that converges means that its area becomes so small so fast that it might as well be equal to something
so if you are bigger than something that is already infinity, your definitly also infinity
and if you are smaller than something that is a finite number then you are definately also a finite number
alright thanks
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