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i am having trouble with the algebraic part. click the question so you know the equation.
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\[\int\limits_{1}^{4} \pi (1/x-4)^{2} dx\]
upper limit = 4 ? if yes, the denominator will become 0. The fraction does not exist. I would like to confirm whether it is really 4
yes it is. i believe.
the answer is 3 pi over 4
integral pi (1/(x-4)^2) dx =integral pi (1/(x-4)^2) d(x-4) =pi (-(1/(x-4)) then, I think it is sth about taking limit but I am not sure. I am sorry for that. I am not able to help you on this.
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but i cant figure out how to get that
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