If g and f(g(x)) are both onto, does it follow that f is onto? If g and f(g(x)) are both onto, does it follow that f is onto? @Mathematics
but why
what if the domain is not g(X)
though there's a different answer here
There is a theorem where it says if f nd g are both onto then gof is also onto.
gof is g(f(x))
experment i saw that answer from that link but its confusing
yes .. Looks like i misunderstood the term onto ... I think I am wrong.
ajprincess but does that mean that this theorm proves that if g and fOg are onto then f is also onto
it says that for every element y co-domain there's at least one value of x in domain x.
ya i guess so.
which proves that f is also onto.
@ajprincess i think quite not.
y? @experimentX
=> symbol means implies f, g are onto => fog is onto => gof is onto f, gof are onto does not => g is onto logic does not flow in both way if something happens due to something, thats the way of algebra
yep u r right.
experiment im confused sorry can u give me the last answer and a simple the proof
choose any number 'w'
now if you can find a number 'x' such that 'f' of x is w, then the function is onto.
ok i understand it but dont know how to write it on my hw because he asked to show my work
write this way, given that g(x) is onto and f(g(x)) is onto which means, f(g(x)) = w, ie for every 'w', there is y = g(x) and g(x) = y, there is 'x' for every 'y', |dw:1333803028373:dw| Now it wouldn't be problem if we change, W to Y because f(g(x)) is onto and for every y, there will be x
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