I was doing a probability and statistics worksheet and I got stuck on a basic mathematical thing involving factorials. Could anyone explain why x!(x+1) is the same as (x+1)! ?
sure
ok thanks
lets pick n = 6 then \(6!=6\times 5\times 4\times 3\times 2\times 1\) and \(n+1=7\) now \(7!=7\times 6\times 5\times 4\times 3\times 2\times 1=7\times 6!\)
yes I worked that out using wolfram. But the thing is, in an exam how would I realise this. Is there a specific method to simplifying factorials or is it just by intuition?
i hate to say that it is obvious, but it is obvious consider any number n then \((n+1)!=(n+1)\times n\times (n-1)\times ...\times 2\times 1\) and this is fairly clearly the same as \[(n+1)\times n!\]
sometimes factorials are even defined that way \[1!=1, n!=n(n-1)!\]
you might also notice that \(\frac{(n+1)!}{n!}=n+1\) for example
I know these look obvious but I cant see it. lol
really try it with numbers and it will be clear
like the n(n-1)! = n! I dont see them as equal unless I start plugging in values using a calculator
how to you get 4! ? by multiplying 4*3*2*1 how do you get 5! ? by multiplying 5*4*3*2*1
so they are the same except for the 5
so basically there is no specific method of simplifying ?
don't think about what the final answer is, just think about what you are computing
\[\frac{7!}{5!}=\frac{7\times 6\times 5\times 4\times 3\times 2\times 1}{5\times 4\times 3\times 2\times 1}=7\times 6\]
with a little practice you would know right away that \(\frac{7!}{5!}=7\times 6\)
ok. Think i'm more confident with these now with your help. Just need more practice
Thanks for your help :)
yw
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