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um... regardless of what a you choose, b =a will work as a choice for b.
Should this problem require that b != a?
Also for an \(a\neq b\). Yup lol forgot
I think intuitively I can say that numbers like \(\frac{1}{\pi},\frac{1}{e}\) qualify. But I'm not sure how to prove it.
Honestly, this problem might be a little over my head, because it seems like any a would work. Maybe you can give me an example of an a that does not?
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\[\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^\frac{1}{2}=\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^\frac{1}{4}\]
This is the case for all, I think, non-transcendental numbers since most points are mapped by the function \(x^x\).
@FoolForMath Halp me :(
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