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NPV calculation: why do textbooks discount a future outflow (investment) that is known for certain at the risky rate (same as risky inflows), rather than at the risk free rate?
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see u will be investing first then only u will be able to generate revenue(cash inflow). Reason that cash outflow is discounted at the risky rate because from ur investment only cash inflow will occur. And if u will discount it using the Risk free rate then the project's cost will be high(normally Risk free rate is low).
Thanks a million!!
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