Find the value of m so that Integral from m to infinity e^(-x/2)dx = 1/2
\[\int\limits_{m}^{\infty} e^(-x/2) dx =1/2\]
i guess the anti derivative is \(-2e^{-\frac{x}{2}}\)
as x goes to infinity this goes to zero right?
so your real job is to set \[\frac{1}{2}e^{-\frac{x}{2}}=\frac{1}{2}\] and solve for \(x\)
make sense? and is it clear what to do now?
How did you get the 1/2 e^-x/2
the first time or the second time?
second time
first you want \[\int e^{-\frac{x}{2}}dx\] the anti - derivative. i get by a mental u - sub \[-\frac{1}{2}e^{-\frac{x}{2}}\] so far so good?
Yup!
then to compute \[\int_ m^{\infty}e^{-\frac{x}{2}}dx\] you take the anti derivative you compute \[\lim_{t\to \infty}-\frac{1}{2}e^{-\frac{x}{2}}-\left (-\frac{1}{2}e^{\frac{m}{2}}\right)\]
now the limit is part is clearly zero because \(e^{-\frac{x}{2}}\) goes to zero lickety split
so you are left with \[\frac{1}{2}e^{-\frac{m}{2}}\] and you want that to be \(\frac{1}{2}\) so write \[\frac{1}{2}e^{-\frac{m}{2}}=\frac{1}{2}\] and solve for \(m\)
k?
Sweet thanks so much!
yw
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