Question

let integral f(x) from limits a to b = t
and let integral f(x) from limits 1/a to 1/b = p
then is there any relation between t and p ?

Answer 1

Not obviously that I can see.
I suppose that you can count a factor of -1/ba in terms of the length of subintervals ie (b-a)/n versus -(b-a)/ban for the two integrals.

Answer 2

sorry didnt get you sir..

Answer 3

Any two real numbers have some kind of relations between them,