is this a homogeneous function? $$exp(\frac{x}{y})?$$ i think it is a homo function with degree 0

Question

lgbasallote · Answer

@TuringTest

lgbasallote · Answer

lol i forgot i could just tag =))

turingtest · Answer

it's not a function without an = sign

lgbasallote · Answer

oh,,well then expression...is it a homogeneous expression?

turingtest · Answer

that has no meaning....
what makes it homogeneous is the =0 part
with out knowing if it is =0 or not we can't know if it is homogeneous anything

lgbasallote · Answer

uhh i guess it is =0...it's just how it was written in the book

turingtest · Answer

I've never heard of a "homogeneous expression" I should look it up

lgbasallote · Answer

lol...well i guess the point is just if it can be expressed as $$\lambda ^n f(x,y)$$

turingtest · Answer

if it is$$\exp(\frac xy)=0$$then that is non-homogeneous... but it's not even e DE where's the derivative

sorry, Ill be back in 5...

turingtest · Answer

NH because because e^0=1....

lgbasallote · Answer

okay..i can wait :D

curious question...are all "exp" non-homogeneous?

blockcolder · Answer

I think what he means is if $f(x,y)=e^{x/y}$ is homogeneous. Right?

lgbasallote · Answer

yep

blockcolder · Answer

$$f(tx,ty)=e^{tx/ty}=e^{x/y}=t^0f(x,y)$$
So it is homogeneous of degree 0.

lgbasallote · Answer

that's what i thought too...

lgbasallote · Answer

i guess turing is too tired right now to think straight ^_^