Question

A ball contains 40 balls numbered 1 through 40. If 1 through 10 are considered lucky and 2 balls are drawn from the bowl without replacement, find the probability that neither balls are lucky.
Can someone help me answer this ?????

Answer 1

"A ball contains 40 balls" - what kind of ball is it?

Answer 2

probability first ball is "not lucky" is \(\frac{30}{40}=\frac{3}{4}\) probability second ball is not lucky "given" that the first ball is not lucky is \(\frac{29}{39}\) reasoning that there are 39 balls left left and of those 29 are not lucky
probability both things occur is the product of these two, namely
\[\frac{3}{4}\times \frac{29}{39}\]
it is an urny ball

Answer 3

Do you mean bowl?

Answer 4

a bowl looking to get lucky

Answer 5

yes i meant bowl