Prove that this sequence converges: s=1+1/2+1/3+...+1/n-ln(n)
\[S=1+(1/2)+(1/3)+...+(1/n)-\ln(n)\]
isnt that a series tho?
It is :D But the series can't converge if the sequence doesn't converge, right? :D
those are state secrets that must never be revealed .... or at least they are details that I never remember :)
i know 1/n is divergent on it own; but that doesnt help
@amistre64 that, and I don't know what "ln" is doing in this series, it seems out of place... is it though?
it does seem rather "odd" lol
Well, the serie should be \[(\sum_{k=1}^{n} 1/k) - \ln(n)\] doesn't?
It will diverge... It's what you call the harmonic series, unless I'm missing something here What's n supposed to be? :)
Wait a sec, this isn't an infinite series at all! Then doesn't that mean that for sure, the series will converge? :)
That's the problem, it must converge, cause the limit of this sequence is Euler constant
the limit as n to inf i believe
can you define a rule for the partial sums? and then work that
What is n, though? Is it a random number? Or perhaps, you let n approach infinity?
s1 = 1 s2 = 3/2 - ln(2) s3 = 3/2 - ln(2) +1/3-ln(3) = 11/6 -ln(2/3) hmmm i think they forgot the limit on the front
n takes the last value for n in the serie, as S=1+1/2+1/3-ln(3) when k goes from 1 to 3
and -ln(n) = ln(1/n)
Are you tasked to prove that it converges, or to prove that it converges to e?
Prove that the sequence converges
good luck, work beckons ....
seq to me suggests that the seq of partial sums as n to inf
Show that it's a cauchy sequence: \[S_{n-1}-S_n=ln(n)-ln(n-1)-\frac{1}{n}\rightarrow0\]
Every real number cauchy sequence converges.
If I remember right, Sn is decreasing (or increasing?) and bounded, therefore, by Monotone Convergence Theorem, Sn converges.
Yes, I was working on that, I prove it's increasing but what about the bounds?
Doesn't the monotone convergence theorem only apply to the convergence of the sequence?
And the sequence in question is \(S_n=H_n-\ln(n)\), where Hn is the nth harmonic number. @knock I think a geometric point of view may help. Consider the function \(f(x)=\frac{1}{x}\).
Ok
Why am I being ignored :p, I already proved it.
@blockcolder I think only the (1/k) is in the sigma; ln (n) is subtracted from the sum, right?
Yeah, and...?
and nothing I was just clarifying that ln(n) is not part of the sequence, only that it's subtracted from the series.
The series does converge, for sure (since it's finite) When you say "its limit" what do you mean by it? Do you mean as n goes to infinity?
The limit of this sequence as n goes to infinity is a number, called Euler constant and represented by leter gamma
But I just want to prove that the sequence converges
Ok here's a solution I found http://www.proofwiki.org/wiki/Euler-Maclaurin_Summation_Formula
I think if all you want to do is prove convergence, then, the integral test should suffice?
Yes but, as ln(n) it's not in the serie, can we use integral test?
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