Question

Can someone explain to me why the integral (a^kx)dx is (a^kx)/(kln(a)) +C instead of it being kxln(a) in the denominator.

Answer 1

change a = e^(ln (a)) and integrate it.

Answer 2

newtons first law of motion

Answer 3

I see, since the integral of e^kx is e^kx/k + c. Thanks haha

Answer 4

yesss its stated on newtons law your welcome