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Mathematics 19 Online
OpenStudy (zepp):

This question is buzzing me... \(\huge \frac{x-x}{x-x}\)

OpenStudy (zepp):

Should the answer be 1 or undefined?

OpenStudy (zepp):

Since have the same numerator and denominator, these two cancels out, leaving 1 as answer... but \(x-x=0\) and \(\huge \frac{0}{0}\) is underfined.

OpenStudy (zepp):

And the first argument perfectly makes sense! D:

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

split terms \[\large \frac{x}{x-x} - \frac{x}{x-x}\] PEMDASsodivide first \[\large \infty - \infty\] so it's indeterminate

OpenStudy (zepp):

And if we work backward... \(\huge \frac{x-x}{x-x}=1\) \(1*(x-x)=(x-x)\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Also: \[x= a \implies \frac{x-a}{x-a} \ne 1\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=(x-x)%2F(x-x)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Because its still zero over zero from my understanding.

OpenStudy (zepp):

What is the point of replacing \(x\) by \(a\), if \(x=a\)? :|

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

but according to l'hospital it's 1

OpenStudy (zepp):

Both answers are accepted? o.O

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Not its not... You get: \[\frac{\frac{d}{dx} (x- x)}{\frac{d}{dx}(x-x)}=\frac{1 - 1}{1 - 1} \ne 1\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

No its not**

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Right @eliassaab ?

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

oh wait lol...i was looking at x-a

OpenStudy (zepp):

I treated \(x-x\) as a term, a term dividing by itself always give 1!

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

it's a removable discontinuity at 1

OpenStudy (anonymous):

zepp...You can't just treat it as a term because its still zero...

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

it's like saying 2 = 1

OpenStudy (zepp):

:/ Okay then what about this:

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

literally

OpenStudy (zepp):

\(1*(x-x)=(x-x)\) This is absolutely right Then why can't we say that \(\frac{x-x}{x-x}=1?\) :D

OpenStudy (anonymous):

It's not correct...(x-x)/(x-x) is NOT EQUAL TO 1

OpenStudy (anonymous):

(x-x)/(x-x)=/=1 implies 1(x-x) =/= (x-x)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Even wolfram agrees its indeterminate.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Can you say that (5-3-2)/(5-3-2) is 1?

OpenStudy (zepp):

Wait, so you are saying that (x-x)/(x-x)=/=1 implies 1(x-x) =/= (x-x) \((x-x) \ne (x-x)\)?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

0/0 is indeterminate. That DOES NOT mean it can't be 1. In this case however, it is not. Look at: \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin(x)}{x} = 1\] That's a 0/0 case that gives you 1.

OpenStudy (zepp):

Oh what a weird paradox xD

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I'm saying you're starting from a false assumption to arrive a true conclusion, you can do that if you've ever taken any proof based mathematics or logic...

OpenStudy (zepp):

Umm, I see

OpenStudy (zepp):

Haha, thanks, it's just to see if my proof works (but unfortunately it doesn't). Thanks :)

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