This question is buzzing me... \(\huge \frac{x-x}{x-x}\)
Should the answer be 1 or undefined?
Since have the same numerator and denominator, these two cancels out, leaving 1 as answer... but \(x-x=0\) and \(\huge \frac{0}{0}\) is underfined.
And the first argument perfectly makes sense! D:
split terms \[\large \frac{x}{x-x} - \frac{x}{x-x}\] PEMDASsodivide first \[\large \infty - \infty\] so it's indeterminate
And if we work backward... \(\huge \frac{x-x}{x-x}=1\) \(1*(x-x)=(x-x)\)
Also: \[x= a \implies \frac{x-a}{x-a} \ne 1\]
Because its still zero over zero from my understanding.
What is the point of replacing \(x\) by \(a\), if \(x=a\)? :|
but according to l'hospital it's 1
Both answers are accepted? o.O
Not its not... You get: \[\frac{\frac{d}{dx} (x- x)}{\frac{d}{dx}(x-x)}=\frac{1 - 1}{1 - 1} \ne 1\]
No its not**
Right @eliassaab ?
oh wait lol...i was looking at x-a
I treated \(x-x\) as a term, a term dividing by itself always give 1!
it's a removable discontinuity at 1
zepp...You can't just treat it as a term because its still zero...
it's like saying 2 = 1
:/ Okay then what about this:
literally
\(1*(x-x)=(x-x)\) This is absolutely right Then why can't we say that \(\frac{x-x}{x-x}=1?\) :D
It's not correct...(x-x)/(x-x) is NOT EQUAL TO 1
(x-x)/(x-x)=/=1 implies 1(x-x) =/= (x-x)
Even wolfram agrees its indeterminate.
Can you say that (5-3-2)/(5-3-2) is 1?
Wait, so you are saying that (x-x)/(x-x)=/=1 implies 1(x-x) =/= (x-x) \((x-x) \ne (x-x)\)?
0/0 is indeterminate. That DOES NOT mean it can't be 1. In this case however, it is not. Look at: \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin(x)}{x} = 1\] That's a 0/0 case that gives you 1.
Oh what a weird paradox xD
I'm saying you're starting from a false assumption to arrive a true conclusion, you can do that if you've ever taken any proof based mathematics or logic...
Umm, I see
Haha, thanks, it's just to see if my proof works (but unfortunately it doesn't). Thanks :)
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