Question

13.5
Consider the logarithm function \(log=exp^{-1}\) on \(\mathbb{R}\). Prove:
f) \( \log: ]0, +\infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}\) is bijective

Answer 1

both log and exp are functions (not multivalued functions) ... and inverse of each other.

Answer 2

existence of inverse implies bijection

Answer 3

is it enough like that for give it to my mentor ?

Answer 4

not sure ... but this is a valid argument.

Answer 5

ok thanks anyway :)

Answer 6

yw