Question

The legend of a map indicates that 1 inch=16 miles. If the distance on the map between two cities is \[2\frac38\] inches, how far apart are the cities?

Answer 1

Make the fraction an improper fraction then multiply it by 16miles.

Answer 2

so the improper fraction is \[\frac{19}{8}\times \frac{16}{1}=\]

Answer 3

how do the miles and inches cancel out?

Answer 4

\[{16 \over 1}=16\]

Answer 5

Do you understand? :)

Answer 6

yes sir

Answer 7

Good. :) now just multiply
\[{19 \over 8} \times 16\]

Answer 8

You can solve it now, I believe?

Answer 9

I can do the multiplications, and the answer is 38. i just don't understand how the inches cancel out to give miles

Answer 10

Here's an example:

You have 2 inches and 1 inch on the map equals 10miles. You would then proceed to multiply 2 by 10, right? this also can be written as 2/1 times 10. It really is just as simple as that.

(I wanted to type a longer expiation but after thinking and thinking, i thought this would be suffice.)

Answer 11

explanation*

Answer 12

Unless the question states that 2,3,4 inches etc., you don't have to worry about converting the miles proportioned to the inches.

Answer 13

thank you!

Answer 14

you're welcome. I hope you understand. If not, hopefully a little; and as you keep doing questions like this, you will begin to understand why.