The chance of a day being rainy is 20%. What is the chance of there being two rainy days during a week?
Start by finding out how many rainy day combos there are in a week. Then, take that number and multiply it by (%rainy)^2 and multiply it again by (%not rainy)^5.
Wouldn't the rainy day combos be 7^7?
There is an easy way to figure the combos. It's starts by finding the permutations first. I'll explain.
Look at the days, Sunday thru Saturday, as days 1-7. You could have the any of the days 1-7 as the "first" rainy day, so you start with a factor of 7.
Now, ther are six days left for the "second" day (which may or may not precede the "first" day, hence the apostrophe's).
So, there are 6 days from which to choose from for the "second", so the next step is 7 x 6, but you don't want to double count the pairs, so you have to divide by 2, so 7 x 6 / 2.
7 x 6 / 2 is the number of combinations of 2 rainy day combos. There are a couple of other ways to get to this number. Perhaps the easiest is to start with day 1 and realize that there are 6 other days it can be paired with "going forward". Then take day 2 and realize that there are 5 to be paired with, etc. 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 42
So 21 days that have 2 rainy days?
yes
Not 21 days have rainy days, but more accurately, there are 21 pairs of days that are rainy.
But how many total combinations are there
7! or 5040?
That's step1. Now, the second part is covered in the first reply. Multiplying by the probability of rainys x non-rainys
What you are really asking is how many total pairs of days are there in 7 objects (days, dice, balls, hoops, etc.). Just 21 ways to take 2 differing pairs of things from a set of 7 different things.
So about .275
Right?
yes
K, Thanks
You got it right and very quickly I might add
Would the process be similar if the question was find the probability of at least 2 rainy days?
Then, you would have to add up 2 rainy days + 3 rainy days + 4 +... Easier would to be finding the probability of no rainy days + 1 rainy day and subtracting that from 1.
the probability for P(rain on 0 days) = .209 and the the probability for P(rain on 1 day) = .367 so the answer would be 1-.209-.367 which equals .424, right?
Yes, that's right. You're actually pretty good at probabilty. I don't think you are going to have much trouble with this subject.
I say that because you got both of these answers very quickly with minimal help.
Mind answering another?
Ok, but I don't think I'm as fast as you are!
Here goes: First flip a coin. If you got heads, roll a 6 sided dice. If you got tails, roll an 8 sided dice. What is the chance that you flipped heads if you rolled a 6?
I can do this one, but you'll have to bear with my step-by-step.
K, go for
Start with a "backwards to forwards" mindset on this. That is what you have to do with what is essentially an example of Bayes' Theorem. (Uses conditional probability). If you roll a 6-sided die, the probability is 1/6 or 4/24. If you roll an 8-sided die, the prob is 1/8 or 3/24. The total probability is 7/24. So, 3/24 / 7/24 = 3/7. Now let me think about this to see if my logic was right.
Got my 6 and 8 switched. 4/24 / 7/24 = 4/7.
I could draw you a nice matrix for this. How do I use a drawing tool here?
so would the answer br 4/7 or .571?
I just saw the drawing tool button
Yep, it's right. Thanks so much
Yes, that's the answer, but you might want to spend some time with this and the drawing as it is essentially a harder problem than the first. I'm going to try to draw a matrix. It's my first one, so it will be sloppy.
Would you mind answering another question at about 7:00 PST, I have a piano lesson now.
If i'm around, just look for me.
I already became a fan, so that should be easy.
Thank you very much
good luck, Chopin.
|dw:1347916089488:dw| So it is really (4/48) / (7/48) = 4/7 which is the same answer of 0.571. With this drawing, I just divided the numerator and denominator by 1/2 to clarify the true probabilities of getting a "6". Same answer, just more rigorous.
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