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Prove: tan y/(tan^2 y - 1) = 1/ (tan y - cot y)
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write the tan y of numerator as 1/ cot y
So you mean I should get (1/cot y)/(tan^2y - 1)?
yes, so its 1/(cot y (tan^2 y -1) ) you know what cot y * tan y is, right ?
I got it now! cot y * tan y = 1, so when I distribute cot y... 1/cot y(tan^2y -1) 1/ tan y(1) - cot y I can't believe I didn't catch it now that I look back. Thanks!
good work! welcome ^_^
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