evaluate limit as x approaches zero from the right. sin (x) ln (3x).
Have you learned the Squeeze/Sandwhich theorem?
Yeah
It's not the whole probelm that i need help with it's just the part at the very end where you have sin (x)/x = 1
Wait so is your question with sin(x) ln(3x) or sin(x) / x?
it's dealing with that problem, just the very end of it. i 'm just wondering how the limit as x approaches 0 from the right of sin(x)/x is 1
Its a Squeeze Theorem proof and its a geometrical one: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ve99biD1KtA
to understand that you need to know l'hopitals. Thats why in calc 1 they call these "Special limits"
ok i get you so far...
if you have the form \[\frac{0}{0}\], you can find the limit by take the derivative of the top and the derivative of the bottom and evaluate the limit again until you do not get a indeterminate form
so taking the derivative you get \[\frac {cos(x)}{1}\] as x goes to 0, this equals 1
that is why sinx/x equals 1
Oooo! ok thanks so much! One more question. How does the limit as x approaches 0 of cot (2x) equal infinity?
cot(2x) is 1/tan(2x) as x->0, tan(2x) is going to tan(0) which is 0. so you have 1/0
this you cannot use the l'hopitals quite yet one way i cant think of is using double angle stuff
1/0 is undefined not infinity
\[\frac{cos(2x)}{sin(2x)}\]
That's what I thought too but im doing homework on this online thing and they said that 0 was wrong and it was infinity so I j
anted to know why
no what i'm saying is that you cannot assume that it is infinity by seeing that it's undefined... there is a chance it is infinity though
okey doke
in this case it is infinity
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