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Mathematics 20 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

hi for any x>x0 , can we say that if f(x) <= g(x) then, f'(x) < g'(x) ?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I doubt it.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

What if f(x)=2 and g(x)=4, both have the same slope.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so what about if we say f'(x) < = g'(x) I need it to solve something else really need this look this is my explanation if f < g suppose it and... lets suppose that slope of f is greater than g then from one certain x to upper x emmm.... f will croos g and goes upper than g right? so... if f always be smaller than g so it has to has smaller slope am i rught?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Not necessarily.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

why?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

If f = g, then f ' =g '

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so

OpenStudy (anonymous):

will it be true if i say ..... f' < = g' ?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i think it is true then

OpenStudy (anonymous):

emmm... i think the functions must be countinuse... we need this condition

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Not just continuous, but smooth, otherwise you can't find the derivative.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh.... yes... thats sign of my confused mind... it is nessesery , thanks

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I'm still not sure that it is true to say, "If f(x) ≤ g(x) then f '(x) ≤ g '(x) for all x." I think f '(x) can locally be larger than g '(x) in some points, but overall f(x) will still be less than g(x).

OpenStudy (anonymous):

f' is slope of f ,let me say my reasons in a better way... down of g we have f if slope of f = slope of g then they keep their distance for all x ... forever... if slope of f < slope of g : their distance becomes more and more as x ---> large values if slope of f > slope of g : their distannce become less until finally they meet anf then f goes upper than g which is counter of f<g . so f ' < = g '

OpenStudy (anonymous):

So you're saying that f ' is always greater than g ' at every point and not just at particular points?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

not exactly i say for x > x0 .... from somewhere to... infinity

OpenStudy (anonymous):

what u said cant happen because of countinuse condition of functions

OpenStudy (anonymous):

What if f '(x) is less than g '(x) in some places, but is greater in others?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i think it cant happen, let me think and give a good reason

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I could just draw a picture as an example.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ohhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh, u r right. i am sorry

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes i did too, u r right

OpenStudy (anonymous):

U might be able to do it over a specified interval, that's about it, though...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Yep, you can state something similar, but you have to be careful about how you word the conditions.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

emmm... right... thanks CliffSedge... u helped me...thank youuuuuuuuuuu others

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i wanted to use this to prove something else , now i understood it is not true and have to find other way, u made i stop waisting time, thanks, later :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

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