How would I solve the sum n=1 to infinity of (n!)^2/(2n)!
\[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{ (n!)^2 }{ (2n)! }\]
Actually I take that back, I don't need to solve, just to establish convergence or divergence
might need someone else to check what i did since its from 1 to infinity you can just plug in a really big number into the equation so the top gets really big and the bottom too but the bottom is multiplied by 2 so it is twice as large than the top, since denominator is bigger than numerator, and if you plug in a huge number it will get close to 0, so your answer is 0
i just learned this and had a test on it, i should know... heres a list of tests http://www.math.com/tables/expansion/tests.htm
i think this test will be the best: Limit Comparison Test If lim (n-->) (an / bn) = L, where an, bn > 0 and L is finite and positive, then the series an and bn either both converge or both diverge.
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