Question

Analysis question: prove that the sequence (1+(1/n))^n is increasing as n -> infinity, without using bernoulli's equation.

Answer 1

so I need to use induction and the binomail formula.

Answer 2

this is a pain to write
check here
http://planetmath.org/11nnIsAnIncreasingSequence.html

Answer 3

hmm my teacher said we should use induction binomail formula, but this is much nicer.

Answer 4

hi again @satellite73 do you think you could help me when you're done here, thanks so much :)

Answer 5

if anyone has an idea on how to do this with induction and binomial formula, please show.

Answer 6

@satellite73 that proof uses bernoulli's inequality