Question

Use logical equivalences to prove:

~R v (Q V P) is equivalent to R=>(~P=>Q)

Answer 1

I was thking about this :

starting with ~R v (Q V P)

then apply ~P=>Q=~P v Q

which would give me : ~R v (~P->Q)

Answer 2

then use the fact that P=>Q=~P v Q to get

~R v (~(~P) v Q)

Answer 3

which would give me :

~ R v (Q v P)

Answer 4

what do you think?