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Mathematics 19 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

MVT for integrals

OpenStudy (anonymous):

prove that there exist a \[\xi\] in \[0 \le x \le \pi\] such that \[\huge \int\limits _0^\pi e^{-x}\cos x dx =\sin \xi \]

OpenStudy (amistre64):

integrate the left side to determine its value

OpenStudy (anonymous):

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i used by parts and i have \[2I=e^{-x}(\sin x-\cos x)|_0^\pi\]

OpenStudy (amistre64):

e^-x +cosx -e^-x - -sinx e^-x + -cosx -e^-x \[\int e^{-x}\cos x dx =-cos(x)~e^{-x}+sin(x)e^{-x}...\]that looks about right so far

OpenStudy (anonymous):

my guess is that you do not have to compute anything (but i could be wrong)

OpenStudy (amistre64):

..... but .... i like computing :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okay did you have a look at the MVTS attached

OpenStudy (amistre64):

cosx changes sign in the interval, e^-x stays positive tho so we can let g(x)=e^-x

OpenStudy (anonymous):

plugging in the boundaries gives \[\frac{1}{2}(e^{-\pi}+1)\le 2(1/2)\le 1\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i agree with @satellite73 in mean value teorems theres very little comp.

OpenStudy (amistre64):

\[f(E)=\frac{1}{b-a}\int_{a}^{b}f(x)dx\] might be helpful? or i mightbe barking up the wrong tree

OpenStudy (anonymous):

well since we have two functions i figured that we might need a defination with f and g

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i mean def 2

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you get directly that \[\int_0^{\pi}e^{-x}\cos(x)dx=\cos(\xi)C\] where \(C<1\) but i don't see how to get a sine out of it

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ane other helpful toll \[m(b-a) \le \int\limits _a^b f(x)dx \le M(b-a)\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

exacly

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i assume C is\[e^{- \xi}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\(C=\int_0^{\pi}=e^{-x}dx\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i mean \[C=\int_0^{\pi}e^{-x}dx\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

obviusly we know the primitive of cos is sin

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes

OpenStudy (anonymous):

how about replacing x with x=u-pi/2?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

then cos becomes sin, exp(-x) can still be taken as g(x)...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh good idea!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

are you talking about the equation or the last conlution

OpenStudy (anonymous):

in the original eq.. then follow the same steps as above...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

really good idea

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}e^{x-\frac{\pi}{2}}\sin(x)dx\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yep

OpenStudy (anonymous):

but unfortunately now the interval changed...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so what? I = I

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yeah but how do you know \[0<\xi<\pi\]??

OpenStudy (anonymous):

then, zeta lies in [-pi/2,pi/2] then translate the co-ordinates back to "x"

OpenStudy (anonymous):

then you don't have sine anymore

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you are looking at the same space but you have repositioned yourself at a different point is space...

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[0\le \xi-\pi/2\le \pi\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[0\le \xi+\pi/2\le \pi\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

zeta-pi/2 is your new zea

OpenStudy (anonymous):

maybe i am confused, but if you change the interval to get sine, i don't see how you can change back and still keep sine the theorem says there is a \(\xi\) in \((a,b)\) and you changed the interval to turn cosine in to sine

OpenStudy (anonymous):

fine name the one obtained in "UV" plane as "eta" then that same "eta" is "zeta" in "XY" plane... function did not change

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[ -{\pi\over2}\le\eta\le{\pi\over2},\qquad-{\pi\over2}\le u\le{\pi\over2}\\ 0\le\eta+{\pi\over2}\le\pi,\qquad0\le u+{\pi\over2}\le\pi\\ 0\le\zeta\pi,\qquad0\le x\le\pi \] we had

OpenStudy (anonymous):

a great man once said... math becomes very meaningful when you keep the mathematical meanings out!!! it will lead to logic :) (me)

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