Question

can some one help on this please?? ill award and fan !
show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x) if it can determine any values of c in the interval [o,2 pi] for which f'(c)=0
f(x)=cos x

Answer 1

whats f(x)

Answer 2

you'll need to specify f(x) = ???

Answer 3

oh sprry @Kanwar245 and @dpaInc

Answer 4

f(x)=cos x

Answer 5

sorry *

Answer 6

do you remember the conditions needed to apply Rolle's Theorem?

Answer 7

conditions:
1- f(x) has to be continuous on [0, 2pi] .... is it?
2- f(x) has to be differentiable on (0, 2pi) .... is it?
3- f(0) = f(2pi) .... is it?

Answer 8

@dpaInc are you asking ??

Answer 9

yes... i'm asking... if all those conditions are met, then u can use Rolle's Theorem.

Answer 10

To satisfy Rolle's theroem, f(0)=f(2pi), f(x) is continuous in [0, 2pi], and is differentiable in (0, 2pi). So, to show whether Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x)=cos(x), show cos(0)=cos(2pi). And cos(x) is continuous and differentiable...