First, assume that we know that if the open set \(A\) is connected then \(A\) is homologically trivial in dimension 0 (All closed 0-forms on \(A\) are exact). I'd like to show that if open \(A\) is homologically trivial in dimension 0 then \(A\) is connected. So my approach is to do so via the contrapositive. Please comment on whether my approach is reasonable.
We wish to show that if open \(A\) is disconnected there exists a closed 0-form that is not exact on \(A\). If open \(A\) is disconnected, we can decompose it into disjoint connected open sets \(\{U_i\}\) where \(\bigcup_i U_i = A\). By the previous assumption each \(U_i\) is homologically trivial. Therefore any closed 0-form on a given \(U_i\) will be exact (and therefore constant). So then we construct our closed but not exact 0-form as follows. Simply let it take on a distinct constant on each \(U_i\) such that \(f(x) = c_i\) when \(x \in U_i\). Clearly it is not exact on \(A\) since it is not constant on all of \(A\). So we need only show that it is closed. Since \(f\) is constant on each \(U_i\) and therefore \(df = 0\) on each \(U_i\) and the union is \(A\) we see that \(df = 0\) on all of \(A\) and therefore it is closed as we wanted. Is this a reasonable approach to the problem?
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