when the price of X is 3 and the price of Y is 3,an individual consumes a bundle of x=4,Y=4.when the price of X has become 1 and the price of Y 5,the individual chooses a bundle of X=3,Y=5.therefore,the consumer prefers (3,5) over (4,4).true or false,explain..

Question

when the price of X is 3 and the price of Y is 3,an individual consumes a bundle of x=4,Y=4.when the price of X has  become 1 and the price of Y 5,the individual chooses a bundle of X=3,Y=5.therefore,the consumer prefers (3,5) over (4,4).true or false,explain..

anonymous · Answer

no....

anonymous · Answer

This question doesn't comply with the economic assumption of consumer rationality i.e A consumer prefers more to less. Unless if this goods X and Y are LUXURY goods in which consumers tends to buy more as price rises to show off wealth. The demand curve for this kind of goods will be an abnormal demand curve(drawing down from right to left like a supply curve)