Question

If the domain of each of the functions f(x) and g(x) is all real numbers, will the domain of (f/g)(x) also be all real numbers? Why or why not?

Answer 1

(f/g)(x)

Answer 2

yes

Answer 3

(f/g)(x) = f(x)/g(x)

Answer 4

hey u there?

Answer 5

I am voting "no" on this based on my reading here: http://math.ucsd.edu/~wgarner/math4c/textbook/chapter2/combfunctions.htm

Suppose we have two functions: f(x) = sin(x) and g(x) = x².
Both have domains that are the set of Real numbers.

But,

f(x)/g(x) = (f/g) (x) = sin(x) /x² .

So, (f/g) (0) = sin(0)/0² which is undefined.

Zero is not in the domain of (f/g) (x) although zero is in the domain of f(x) and
of g(x)