Question

Consider functions
f
and
g
such that composite
gof
is defined and is one-
one. Are
f
and
g
both necessarily one-one.

Answer 1

@kelliandco

Answer 2

can i give an example to show where this is not true?

Answer 3

Thank you sir

Answer 4

this will work only if this holds
If g(f(x)) is one-to-one (injective), then f(x) is also one-to-one given that f is a function from A to B and g a function from B to C.