In the figure (attached below), H is the midpoint of EK and FJ. What reason can be used in a proof to show EF is congruent to JK? (after the triangles are proven congruent) a.) AAS b.) CPCTC c.) Def. of bisects d.) ASA
Here is the figure that the question refers to : )
What does your heart tell you? :)
The keyphrase here is *AFTER the triangles are proven congruent* There is one of these choices that may ONLY be used as a reason when you have a pair of congruent triangles...
My <3 says no to C for sure!! I'm very confused after that : (
What does CPCTC mean? :3
I'm not sure actually.... :/
Sorry... internet died :D
I'm leaning more towards the answer being D?
Oh no don't worry!!!
Well, don't :P lol... tsk tsk somebody didn't read her books :3
WOOPS!
CPCTC means "Corresponding Parts of Congruent Triangles are Congruent"
As you can see, it's a mouthful, which is why CPCTC is preferred :D
So, the question says that the triangles are already proven to be congruent... so...
In fact, the segments EF and JK are indeed CORRESPONDING PARTS of the pair of congruent triangles :D
So you can conclude that they are congruent because of... <drum roll> CPCTC ;D
Awesome! Thank you!!!!!!!!
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