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Mathematics 15 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

@oldrin.bataku Prove that if integrals (a)int(x) and (x)int(b) are equal for all X within [a,b] -> Real, that f(x) must always be 0.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

did this one earlier, at least a rough outline of a proof. want to see?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

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