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True or False: For a trigonometric function, y = f(x), then x = F-1(y). Explain your answer.
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Yes, it would be true. For a trig function, f(angle) = y and f^-1(y) = angle. F^(-1) represents inverse functions. In the case of trigonometry, inverse functions are simply sin^-1 (arcsin if you prefer), etc. Not only that, but if you ever dealt with inverse functions in regular precalculus, you would prove that functions are inverses if plugging one into the other resulted in everything being reduced to x. Well, this is exactly what happens here. If I have, for example, sin(x) and sin^-1(x)and I replace x with the other function, everything cancels to simply leave x.
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