Dirac delta function. Integral delta(t) from t1 to t2 for t1,t2<0
I think it is 0 but am not sure
Isn't it defined as the derivative of the Heaviside function?
i think the dirac delta function is zero everywhere except at 0 so yes, the integral will be zero
if i am not mistaken the integral \[\int _{-\infty}^{\infty}\delta=1\]
some weird real tall function at \(x=0\) and \(0\) otherwise
Thank you :)
yw, but i would not take my word for it maybe google
I am sure now. I re read my notes and found it there too.
whew
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