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Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Find the limit, if it exist.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}x \cos \frac{ 1 }{ x }\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

without using l'hopital

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Do you know about the squeeze theorem?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I can't really recall it that well.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Basically, you use the fact that a known function is bounded and show that this other function is bounded. Firstly, we have that \(-1\le\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\le1\), right? Well, multiplying both sides by \(x\) gives you \[-x\le x\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\le x\] Taking the limit, we have \[\lim_{x\to0}(-x)\le\lim_{x\to0}x\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\le\lim_{x\to0}x\\ 0\le\lim_{x\to0}x\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\le0\] What does this tell you about the limit?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

That the limit equals 0?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Well thank you for the help Siths. Assuming what I said is the right answer from interpreting your explanation.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Yes, it's 0. One way of thinking about it is, even though the cosine part rapidly oscillates as it approaches 0, the factor of x "overpowers" it.

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