Find the limit, if it exist.
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}x \cos \frac{ 1 }{ x }\]
without using l'hopital
Do you know about the squeeze theorem?
I can't really recall it that well.
Basically, you use the fact that a known function is bounded and show that this other function is bounded. Firstly, we have that \(-1\le\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\le1\), right? Well, multiplying both sides by \(x\) gives you \[-x\le x\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\le x\] Taking the limit, we have \[\lim_{x\to0}(-x)\le\lim_{x\to0}x\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\le\lim_{x\to0}x\\ 0\le\lim_{x\to0}x\cos\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\le0\] What does this tell you about the limit?
That the limit equals 0?
Well thank you for the help Siths. Assuming what I said is the right answer from interpreting your explanation.
Yes, it's 0. One way of thinking about it is, even though the cosine part rapidly oscillates as it approaches 0, the factor of x "overpowers" it.
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