\[\overline{A \cup B}=\overline{A} \ \cup \overline{B}\]
\[a \in \overline{A} \ \iff \forall r>0, \ B(a,r)\cap \ A \ \ne \emptyset\]
thats pretty much all I have
looks like a proof of something i am fairly sure is wrong
hmm, I have it in two books as a propasition
proposition*
oooh sorry, i thought they were sets and compliment, excuse me it is late it is sets and closures
yeah
try to use that $\overline{A}$ is the smallest closed set containing \(A\)
you have to show containment both ways depending on your definition of closed sets try here for a more precise explanation than i can write http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/195311/union-of-closure-of-sets-is-the-closure-of-the-union
@watchmath it must have been a while $ does not work use \(
for in line \(\overline{A}\) tex
yes I know satellite. But I am just got use to using dollar.
Remember de Morgan's law?
Haha! I remember learning de morgans xD
Since \[ \overline{A\cup B}=\overline A\cap \overline B \]You must find where: \[ \overline A\cap \overline B\neq \overline A\cup \overline B \]
yeah
It's not a contradiction, but rather something that will sometimes be false.
since \(\overline{A}\cup \overline{B}\) is closed and containing \(A\cup B\) byt the property of closure then we have \(\overline{A}\cup \overline{B}\supseteq\overline{A\cup B}\). On the other hand \(\overline{A}\subseteq \overline{A\cup B}\) and \(\overline{B}\subseteq \overline{A\cup B}\). Hence \[\overline{A}\cup \overline{B}\subseteq \overline{A\cup B}\]
ahh easy peasy ty. I guess it makes total sense that \(A \subset \overline{A}\) they just define closure for us and then give me the iff statement so Im thinking I need to used a closed ball. but I guess not.
use*
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