Question

Without dividing, do you expect five-eighths divided by one-sixteenth to be greater than or less than 1? Explain

Answer 1

show me how to do it plz

Answer 2

Yes, because dividing by a fraction with the value 1 in its numerator is the same as multiplying the fraction by the denominator. In other words, if you had (a/b) divided by (1/16), it's the same as saying (a/b) multiplied by 16. This is a very helpful tool in mathematics.

Without dividing, you can tell that multiplying the value of five (5) by sixteen (16) is going to result in a value significantly higher than eight (8). Since the resulting numerator will be higher than the denominator, the resulting fraction will be much higher than 1.

Hope this helps.

Answer 3

thanks