6

Question

6

anonymous · Answer

the probability would be 1/6 to get a 6

anonymous · Answer

so my answer would just be 1/6? that seems too easy lol

campbell_st · Answer

oops I just re-read the question, so I need to apology... 

its not 1/6

shamil98 · Answer

probability distribution i believe..

shamil98 · Answer

$$f(k) = \frac{ n! }{ k!(n-k)! } p^k (1-p)^{n-k}$$
i think.

shamil98 · Answer

p = 1/10
k = 1
n = 10 
..

anonymous · Answer

wait why is p = 1/10?

anonymous · Answer

oh wait nvm i got it

shamil98 · Answer

this is binomial distribution
p = 1 out of 10 
you want 1 of them to be six so k = 1
and the total tries is n = 10

anonymous · Answer

but i thought i was supposed to use this formula: $$\Pr \left(\begin{matrix}n \ k\end{matrix}\right)p ^{k}q ^{n-k}$$

shamil98 · Answer

What is that formula called?..the one you are referring to..
sorry i'm not that experienced with probability distributions
$$\left(\begin{matrix}n \ k\end{matrix}\right) = \frac{ n! }{ n!(n-k)! }$$

anonymous · Answer

i think its called the binomial random variable...i jsut tried it both ways and got the same answer so i guess its the same thing

shamil98 · Answer

oh i'm using Probability mass function 
so yeah i guess so

shamil98 · Answer

well the formula from this http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_distribution

anonymous · Answer

its not the right answer i just checked

shamil98 · Answer

did you do the calculations correctly? .-.

anonymous · Answer

yes i did i got 0.387420489

shamil98 · Answer

write it as a fraction.

anonymous · Answer

it doesn't work

hartnn · Answer

6 exactly once, so 1/6 and there should not be 6 every other 9 times (5/6)
so just 
(1/6)*(5/6)^9

shamil98 · Answer

Oh. it was simpler than that . mb..

shamil98 · Answer

you end up with $$\frac{ 1953125 }{ 60466176 }$$ 
then.

anonymous · Answer

lol thats not right either :(