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Mathematics 17 Online
OpenStudy (christos):

LInear algebra, https://www.dropbox.com/s/5kc1i7p03vhf3kc/Screenshot%202013-11-16%2017.31.38.jpg I dont understand how exactly am I supposed to show that because simply I don't even think its true ... what if a=1 d=1 but also c=1 OR b=1 ... Then the inequality still works but its not A=I2 .... Help please?

OpenStudy (phi):

Perhaps they mean in terms of A being a basis for R^2

OpenStudy (imtiaz7):

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