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\[If \int\limits_{0}^{1}f(x)dx=0, then f(x)=0 For All 0<x<1\]
Observe that \[\int\limits_{0}^{1}f(x)dx = F(1)-F(0)\] Think, is there any possible counter-example that you could provided to disprove the statement? Note, \[\int\limits_{0}^{1}(2x-3x^2)dx = F(1) -F(0)= 0\] So, the statement is false.
Wait. I misread.
The statement is still false, however.|dw:1385088213032:dw| Imagine if A1 = A2. Then the statement is false.
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