Explain how the ideal mechanical advantage and efficiency of a machine determine the machine’s actual mechanical advantage.
what part of it don't u get?! Imagine u have a machine that has a mechanical ideal advantage of 1.. which means if u put a force of 100N, u get a force of 100 N.. and lets say the actual machine is only 80% efficient.. tell me when what will this machines output be.. ? if u input 200N of force?!
2N.
:O... tell me how did u get that?! this machine has 80 percent efficiency and a mechanical advantage of 1.. and u put in 200N of force!
Then idk how i would get it..-_-
ok.. imagine.. that.. the efficiency was 100 percent.. and mechanical advantage of 1.. then what would bet eh output?
It is 2 .
nope.. u don't understand the concept of mechanical advantage do you!? if mechanical advantage is n, then the output force is n times the input so if it is 5... then the output force would be 5 times more than in the input force.. do u understand what m saying?!
Ok maybe i should ask for some extra help on that..Thanks
hmmm.. its really easy.. its what i said.. so a machine wiht 10 mech advantage.. would give u 10 times more than input force.. then put in the efficiency.. !
Your force is multiplied by the mechanical advantage times its efficiency. If MA is 10 and efficiency is 75% then your force is multiplied by (0.75)(10) = 7.5.
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