Question

Deriving \(0!=1\) from the field axioms?

Answer 1

Showing that \(b<a\) implies \(\prod_{i=a}^bx_i=1\) for all \(\{x_i\}\).

Answer 2

I think this is equivalent to the problem of showing $0!=1$ from field axioms.

Answer 3

I'm waiting for behavior to change before I jump in, here.

Answer 4

Nope, software problem. All I could see was gibberish. A little reboot and there seems to be some words, now.

Answer 5

@dan815 can you see the problem well? dan? can you help?