Question

If f(x) = tan(x), does the Mean Value Theorem apply on the interval [0,pi ] and why?

Answer 1

@phi ???

Answer 2

Nope, because it is discontinuous at pi/2

Answer 3

You should look at the definition of when you can use the Mean Value Theorem

Answer 4

To use the Mean Value Thm you must have
a function that satisfies both of the following:
is continuous on the closed interval [a,b] <--- NOTICE
is differentiable on the open interval (a,b).

on the interval [0,pi ]
what is the value of tan(pi) ?